DHA Exam Questions for Ayurveda — Sample Papers & Practice MCQs

The DHA Ayurveda licensing exam is delivered at Prometric test centres as a computer-based assessment of 100 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions, to be completed in 2 hours 30 minutes. Each question carries equal weight and there is no negative marking, so attempting every question is always worthwhile even under time pressure.

The pass mark is set at 60%, though DHA reserves the right to adjust this using standard-setting methods for a given exam form, so treat 60% as a working target rather than a fixed guarantee. Results are typically available within a few working days through the Prometric or DHA candidate portal.

Questions are drawn from clinical Ayurveda subjects taught in the standard BAMS curriculum, plus a smaller but important component on UAE healthcare regulation, patient safety, and professional ethics. Because the exam is scenario-heavy rather than pure recall, candidates who have only memorised textbook definitions without clinical reasoning practice often underperform relative to their college marks.

While DHA does not publish an official fixed blueprint, analysis of candidate experience and the underlying BAMS curriculum gives a reliable approximate weightage to plan your study time around:

• Kayachikitsa (internal medicine) — 25%
• Dravyaguna (pharmacology) — 15%
• Panchakarma — 15%
• Rasashastra & Bhaishajya Kalpana — 10%
• Prasuti Tantra & Stree Roga (obstetrics/gynaecology) — 10%
• Shalya & Shalakya Tantra (surgery, ENT, ophthalmology) — 10%
• Swasthavritta & Yoga (preventive medicine) — 5%
• Medical ethics & UAE health law — 10%

Kayachikitsa carries the single largest share because it covers the broadest clinical territory — chronic disease management, differential diagnosis, and treatment principles that overlap with several other subjects. Spending disproportionate time here has the highest return per study hour.

These are original practice questions written to match DHA's clinical-reasoning style — they are not taken from any Prometric or DHA question bank.

Q1. Which dosha combination, complicated by Ama, is classically responsible for Amavata? Options: (a) Vata alone (b) Kapha alone (c) Vata-Kapha with Ama (d) Pitta-Rakta Answer: (c) Vata-Kapha with Ama Explanation: Madhavakara describes Amavata as a Vata-Kapha disorder complicated by undigested Ama lodging in the joints, distinguishing it from pure Vata-origin Sandhivata.

Q2. Which single drug is classically valued as a Rasayana for Vata-predominant neuromuscular conditions? Options: (a) Guduchi (Tinospora cordifolia) (b) Ashwagandha (Withania somnifera) (c) Bhringaraj (Eclipta alba) (d) Kutki (Picrorhiza kurroa) Answer: (b) Ashwagandha Explanation: Ashwagandha is classified as Balya and Vata-shamaka, with documented adaptogenic action, making it a standard choice in Vata-dominant weakness and neuromuscular disorders.

Q3. Which variant of Prameha carries the worst classical prognosis? Options: (a) Vataja Prameha (b) Pittaja Prameha (c) Kaphaja Prameha (d) All are equally curable Answer: (a) Vataja Prameha Explanation: Classical texts grade the ten Kaphaja types as Sadhya (curable), the six Pittaja types as Yapya (palliable), and the four Vataja types — including Madhumeha — as Asadhya (difficult to cure).

Q4. Langhana (fasting therapy) as a line of treatment in Jwara is contraindicated in which situation? Options: (a) Fresh (Ama) fever (b) Chronic fever with significant Bala-kshaya (debility) (c) Vishama Jwara (d) Santata Jwara Answer: (b) Chronic fever with significant debility Explanation: Langhana is the primary line in fresh Ama-stage fever, but once strength and tissue reserves are depleted, Brimhana (nourishing therapy) is indicated instead.

Q5. Which classical text, along with Charaka Samhita, is considered part of the Brihat Trayi and is widely used as a concise clinical reference? Options: (a) Sharangadhara Samhita (b) Ashtanga Hridaya (c) Bhavaprakasha (d) Madhava Nidana Answer: (b) Ashtanga Hridaya Explanation: Vagbhata's Ashtanga Hridaya, along with Charaka and Sushruta Samhita, forms the Brihat Trayi and is favoured clinically for its concise, well-organised presentation.

Q6. Vasa, classically used in Kaphaja Kasa and Raktapitta, is botanically identified as? Options: (a) Adhatoda vasica (b) Ocimum sanctum (c) Justicia gendarussa (d) Solanum xanthocarpum Answer: (a) Adhatoda vasica Explanation: Vasa is a Kaphahara, Raktapittahara drug used in respiratory and bleeding disorders; its vasicine alkaloid content gives it bronchodilatory and expectorant action.

Q7. Which Rasa is Vata-Pitta shamaka and Brimhana but aggravates Kapha when used in excess? Options: (a) Katu (pungent) (b) Madhura (sweet) (c) Amla (sour) (d) Tikta (bitter) Answer: (b) Madhura Explanation: Madhura rasa pacifies Vata and Pitta and is nourishing, but in excess it increases Kapha and Meda, per the Rasa-Guna-Karma framework of Dravyaguna.

Q8. Guduchi (Tinospora cordifolia) is classified under which category for its immunomodulatory effect? Options: (a) Sandhaniya (b) Tridoshahara Rasayana (c) Chakshushya (d) Vamaka Answer: (b) Tridoshahara Rasayana Explanation: Charaka lists Guduchi as a Tridoshahara Rasayana valued for balancing all three doshas, and its immunomodulatory activity is supported by modern pharmacological research.

Q9. The classical six-day Snehapana dose escalation most commonly follows which pattern? Options: (a) 30-60-90-120-150-180 ml (b) 50-100-150-200-250-300 ml (c) An equal dose every day (d) A reverse tapering dose Answer: (a) 30-60-90-120-150-180 ml Explanation: The standard Aroha Krama for internal oleation escalates the dose in a graded pattern until Samyak Snigdha Lakshana (proper oleation signs) appear.

Q10. Which sign confirms Samyak Yoga (proper completion) of Vamana Karma? Options: (a) Vomitus that clears back to Kapha-type fluid after the prescribed Vega count, without forcing further Pitta (b) Vomitus containing only blood (c) No emesis occurring at all (d) Emesis continuing indefinitely Answer: (a) Explanation: Classical teaching (Kaphante Vamanam Shastam) holds that ideal Vamana concludes once the vomitus returns to clear, Kapha-type fluid after passing through the expected Vega count, without pushing into excessive Pitta or Rakta discharge.

Q11. Anuvasana Basti primarily uses which base substance? Options: (a) Kashaya (decoction) (b) Sneha (oil or ghee) (c) Kshara (alkali) (d) Madhu (honey) alone Answer: (b) Sneha Explanation: Anuvasana Basti is an oil-predominant enema used mainly for Vata disorders and to counter Vata vitiation caused by repeated Niruha Basti, which is Kashaya-based.

Q12. What two sequential processes reduce the toxicity of a metal or mineral before internal use in Rasashastra? Options: (a) Shodhana only (b) Marana only (c) Shodhana followed by Marana (d) Neither is required Answer: (c) Shodhana followed by Marana Explanation: Classical Rasashastra requires purification (Shodhana) followed by incineration into a fine Bhasma (Marana) before internal administration, reducing toxicity and improving assimilation.

Q13. Swarna Bhasma is the incinerated preparation of which base metal? Options: (a) Gold (b) Silver (c) Copper (d) Mercury Answer: (a) Gold Explanation: Swarna Bhasma is purified, incinerated gold, classically indicated as a Medhya and Rasayana preparation, administered only after confirmed Bhasma Pariksha.

Q14. Which combination of tests is classically used to confirm a Bhasma has reached the properly incinerated stage? Options: (a) Varitara (floats on still water) (b) Rekhapurnatva (fills fingerprint ridges) (c) Nishchandratva (loses metallic lustre) (d) All three used together Answer: (d) All three used together Explanation: Bhasma Pariksha combines Varitara, Rekhapurnatva, and Nishchandratva tests to confirm a mineral preparation is properly incinerated, fine, and safe for use.

Q15. In the final month of pregnancy, Garbhini Paricharya classically advises which regimen? Options: (a) Strict bed rest with heavy oleation (b) Light, Vata-pacifying diet with gentle oil application and Basti to ease labour (c) Complete fasting (d) Vamana therapy Answer: (b) Explanation: In the tenth lunar month, classical texts recommend a light, Vata-pacifying regimen with local oil application and mild Basti to support smooth Prasava without aggravating Vata.

Q16. Ksharasutra is the classical minimally invasive treatment of choice for which condition? Options: (a) Arsha (piles) (b) Bhagandara (fistula-in-ano) (c) Hydrocele (d) Varicose veins Answer: (b) Bhagandara Explanation: Ksharasutra, a medicated alkaline thread, is a well-documented and clinically validated technique for fistula-in-ano, combining mechanical cutting with chemical cauterisation.

Q17. Which text is regarded as the foundational surgical treatise of Ayurveda? Options: (a) Charaka Samhita (b) Sushruta Samhita (c) Ashtanga Sangraha (d) Madhava Nidana Answer: (b) Sushruta Samhita Explanation: Sushruta Samhita is the foundational Shalya Tantra text, detailing surgical instruments, techniques, and procedures, including early descriptions of reconstructive surgery.

Q18. Before a Panchakarma procedure carrying identifiable risk, a DHA-licensed practitioner is required to obtain what from the patient? Options: (a) Verbal approval only (b) Documented informed consent covering procedure, benefits, risks, and alternatives (c) No consent for traditional therapies (d) Consent only for surgical procedures Answer: (b) Explanation: DHA practice standards require documented informed consent before any procedure carrying identifiable risk, irrespective of whether the therapy is conventional or traditional in origin.

Q19. Under DHA regulation, an Ayurveda physician's authority to dispense scheduled or controlled medication is generally? Options: (a) Unrestricted (b) Limited strictly to the physician's licensed scope, with controlled drugs requiring separate specific authorisation (c) The same as any DHA-licensed staff member (d) Prohibited outright for every practitioner type Answer: (b) Explanation: Prescribing and dispensing rights are tied to a practitioner's licensed scope, and controlled-drug categories require additional authorisation that most Ayurveda licences do not automatically include.

Q20. If a DHA-licensed clinic suspects a patient has a notifiable communicable disease, the correct action is to? Options: (a) Treat and discharge without reporting (b) Report to the relevant public health authority per mandatory notification rules (c) Refer to an international body directly (d) Record internally only, with no external reporting Answer: (b) Explanation: UAE public health regulation requires licensed practitioners across all systems of medicine to report notifiable communicable diseases to the relevant health authority promptly.

Month 1 — Foundation and high-weightage subjects. Rebuild Kayachikitsa and Dravyaguna from your BAMS notes rather than starting from unfamiliar new material — you already know most of this, you are refreshing recall speed. Cover major disease chapters (Jwara, Prameha, Amavata, Kasa-Shwasa, Raktapitta) and the top 100 single drugs with their Rasa-Guna-Karma. Do 20-30 MCQs daily from mixed sources to build exam stamina early.

Month 2 — Panchakarma, Rasashastra, and specialty subjects. Go deep on Panchakarma procedures, Shuddhi Lakshana, and Basti classifications, then move to Rasashastra Bhasma preparation basics and common formulations. Add Prasuti Tantra, Shalya, and Shalakya at a lighter pace since they carry smaller individual weightage. Start weekly timed 100-question mock tests under 2.5-hour conditions.

Month 3 — UAE law, revision, and full mocks. Dedicate the first two weeks to medical ethics and UAE health regulations — informed consent, notifiable diseases, scope-of-practice rules, and controlled substances — since this is the subject most candidates under-prepare for. Spend the final two weeks on full-length mock exams, error-log review, and targeted revision of your weakest 20% of topics rather than re-reading everything equally.

Your existing BAMS textbooks remain the core resource — there is no need to buy an entirely new library. Prioritise:

• Your college Kayachikitsa and Dravyaguna textbooks for core clinical and pharmacology review
• A standard Materia Medica reference for quick drug lookups (Rasa-Guna-Karma-Prayoga format)
• A concise Panchakarma procedure manual for Poorvakarma-Pradhanakarma-Paschatkarma sequencing
• Any DHA-oriented healthcare regulation primer covering informed consent, notifiable diseases, and scope-of-practice principles
• Structured MCQ practice sets to simulate exam-style single-best-answer questions with timed conditions

Avoid collecting too many books — depth on a smaller, well-revised set beats shallow coverage of many sources.

Arrive at the Prometric centre at least 30 minutes early with your original passport or Emirates ID, since late arrivals are commonly refused entry with no rescheduling grace period. The test centre issues a locker for personal belongings — nothing beyond ID is permitted at the workstation.

Pace yourself at roughly 1.5 minutes per question, which leaves buffer time for a final review pass. If a question is unclear, mark it for review and move on rather than losing time on a single item — since there is no negative marking, never leave a question unanswered even as a guess.

Read each stem fully before looking at the options; DHA questions are often scenario-based, and the clinically relevant detail is frequently in the second half of the stem. Stay hydrated and take the optional short break if the testing software allows one, since fatigue in the final 20 questions is a common cause of avoidable errors.

Reinforce what you have covered here with structured 100 MCQ practice sets, then work through the complete DHA Dubai licensing guide for the full eligibility and DataFlow process, and check realistic UAE salary expectations for licensed Ayurveda doctors before you plan your move.